sorry if this is a repost, im not sure.
The idea is we want for n E {0,1,2,3} , q E [0,1] and x positive real :
0 < (d/dx)^n exp^[q](x) =< (d/dx)^n exp^[q + h](x)
for any positive h such that q + h =< 1.
My fear is however this might not be analytic ?
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edit : incorrect statement removed
***
If we relax the first equation to
The idea is we want for n E {0,1,2,3} , q E [0,1] and x positive real :
0 =< (d/dx)^n exp^[q](x) =< (d/dx)^n exp^[q+h](x)
for any positive h such that q + h =< 1.
Then I think again hoosmand equation is the solution if it even has one.
Which makes me skeptic about the first equation having analytic solutions.
so intuitive simple bounded derivatives and semi-group iso seem to have no solutions.
Nice uniqueness criterion tears.
regards
tommy1729
The idea is we want for n E {0,1,2,3} , q E [0,1] and x positive real :
0 < (d/dx)^n exp^[q](x) =< (d/dx)^n exp^[q + h](x)
for any positive h such that q + h =< 1.
My fear is however this might not be analytic ?
***
edit : incorrect statement removed
***
If we relax the first equation to
The idea is we want for n E {0,1,2,3} , q E [0,1] and x positive real :
0 =< (d/dx)^n exp^[q](x) =< (d/dx)^n exp^[q+h](x)
for any positive h such that q + h =< 1.
Then I think again hoosmand equation is the solution if it even has one.
Which makes me skeptic about the first equation having analytic solutions.
so intuitive simple bounded derivatives and semi-group iso seem to have no solutions.
Nice uniqueness criterion tears.
regards
tommy1729

