(10/06/2014, 07:17 PM)jaydfox Wrote: \(
\frac{\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \left((-1)^k\, 2^{-k^2/2}\right)}{\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \left(2^{-k^2/2}\right)}
\)
This evaluates to approximately (0.004872868560797)/(3.01076739115959), which is approximately 0.001618480582427.
In general \( \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \left((-1)^k\, f(-k^2)\right) \) equals \( 2 \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \left((-1)^k\, f(-k^2)\right)-f(0) \).
You probably already know that , but maybe it simplifies matters ?
Are you claiming that there are no zero's off the real line ?
Very intresting stuff.
I think we are onto a general thing ;
No zero's in the upper complex plane
Good entire approximations ( fake function , J(x) for the binary p )
... with all derivatives positive.
It all seems connected.
Id like to see how you arrived at these things.
Thanks.
regards
tommy1729

