09/23/2009, 07:54 PM
(09/23/2009, 09:52 AM)Ansus Wrote: Did you try this formula btw?
\( f_a(x)=\log_a\left(f_a(x)+\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{f_a^{(n+1)}(0)}{n!}B_n(x) \right) \)
What function is \( f_a \)? Is that just some arbitrary function, or is it Tetration?
If it's tetration, then it would seem to be similar to the Faulhaber formula.
Addendum: Just tested it assuming f is tetration w/base sqrt(2) and numerical differentiation values for the derivatives. Yepper, conventional sum diverges just like the other.