07/29/2009, 05:03 PM
(This post was last modified: 07/29/2009, 05:08 PM by Base-Acid Tetration.)
wow. the similarity between \( !^{1 \over 2} \) and \( \exp^{1 \over 2 } \) strikes me.
just a question... why do you show the \( !^{1 \over 2} \), not the \( \mathrm{\Gamma}^{1 \over 2} \), the square root of gamma function? no, it doesn't really matter which choice, because !(z) and Gamma(z) are bassically the same: !(z-1) = gamma(z). but is it easier to extract the root of \( ! \)?
just a question... why do you show the \( !^{1 \over 2} \), not the \( \mathrm{\Gamma}^{1 \over 2} \), the square root of gamma function? no, it doesn't really matter which choice, because !(z) and Gamma(z) are bassically the same: !(z-1) = gamma(z). but is it easier to extract the root of \( ! \)?