just another uniqueness musing

[tommy1729]

in fact it shows the following important result :

if f(x) ( being f(f(x)) = exp(x) ) exists and is unique on a finite (real) interval I ,

then f(x) exists and is unique for all real x.

that interval I has to be large enough though.

it has to 'connect' two rectangles.

however perhaps someone can get rid of that restriction and arrive at " any finite interval " ?

regards

tommy1729