06/12/2022, 01:50 PM
Dear James your 2 last posts are inspirational but I cannot accept them at the moment - maybe later -.
Here is why : it is not shown to be analytic in x,s,y and at the same time satisfy the superfunction property where x <s+1> y is in a way the super of x <s> y.
I am not convinced that they can be united with x <s> f(x) = x for some analytic f(x) and that that f(x) is almost free to choose.
( the integers have to match with the defintions of x<0>y and x<1>y etc ofcourse * unless you let those be free to choose as well )
Not trying to be annoying
regards
tommy1729
Here is why : it is not shown to be analytic in x,s,y and at the same time satisfy the superfunction property where x <s+1> y is in a way the super of x <s> y.
I am not convinced that they can be united with x <s> f(x) = x for some analytic f(x) and that that f(x) is almost free to choose.
( the integers have to match with the defintions of x<0>y and x<1>y etc ofcourse * unless you let those be free to choose as well )
Not trying to be annoying
regards
tommy1729