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solving f(g(x)) = f(x) converging to f(exp(x)) = f(x) - Printable Version

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solving f(g(x)) = f(x) converging to f(exp(x)) = f(x) - tommy1729 - 02/22/2022

Let \( f(x,n) \) and \( g(x,m) \) be truncated taylor taylors series of resp \( f(x),g(x) \) up to orders \( n,m \).

Consider the equation 

\( f(g(x))=f(x) \)

More specific  \( f(x) = a_1+a_2 g(x)+a_3 g(x)^2+ a_4 g(x)^3+ a_5 g(x)^4+ ... \)

We add the condition \( f(x) = a_1 + a_2 g(x) + a_3 g(2x) + a_4 g(3x) + a_5 g(4x) + ... \)

By using the taylor coefficients of g(x) we can set up a system of equations ...
And by truncating and dropping terms , we can get exact solutions for the coefficients that are approximations for f and g.

For instance we solve  

 \( f(x,4) = a_1 + a_2 g(x,2)+ a_3 g(x,2)^2+ a_4 g(x,2)^3+ a_5 g(x,2)^4 \)

and

\( f(x,4) = a_1 + a_2 g(x,2) + a_3 g(2x,2) + a_4 g(3x,2) + a_5 g(4x,2) \)


The first equations has degree 4*2 = 8.

The second equation has degree 2.

dropping terms gives a solvable system and a relatively good approximation of orders (2,2).

This approximation then is an approximation to 

\( f(g(x,2),2)=f(x,2) \)

Increasing n and m increases all precisions.

The conjecture is that since exp(c N x) = exp(c x)^N ( for integer N) we start to approximate 

\( f(\exp*(x)) =f(x) \)

Where exp*(x) is a truncated taylor for exp(x) with order growing with n and m.

Then f(x,n) is clearly a truncated taylor solution for slog(x)/dx as n goes to +infinity.

Yes Im aware we have probably seen these equations before.

They probably converge to Andrews slog.

He took a different approach by taking derivatives.
But that is similar to using taylors since the nth derivative relates to the taylor coef.




regards

tommy1729


RE: solving f(g(x)) = f(x) converging to f(exp(x)) = f(x) - tommy1729 - 05/26/2022

I strongly believe in this.


RE: solving f(g(x)) = f(x) converging to f(exp(x)) = f(x) - JmsNxn - 05/26/2022

Guess I never saw this thread.

I absolutely believe this will converge pointwise at least. But can we be sure that the Taylor series is convergent?

Sounds like Andrew's slog, but I like this more, seems more tangible.

I do not think it'll be easy to show the radius of convergence is non zero though. And we need it to be \(|L|\). Sounds really hard to be honest.